Read this,“I had a bad dream because I ate right before I went to bed.” This is something I've heard many times, that eating right before going to bed causes bad dreams. When I logically look at it the connection is missing, how can one definitively say that eating right before sleeping really caused a bad dream? “The basketball team played poorly because the stock market was down.” Look at this statement, in a sense its no different than the first statement, logically a connection is missing. How did the stock market affect how the basketball team played? (I guess you could say maybe they all had a lot of stocks invested, but you'd need to specify that, otherwise you may as well disregard it.)
I believe what we have here is Non sequiter (which literally means “doesn't follow”) the statements are painted out like one thing led to another, but in reality there is no connection. Back to the first statement though, I've heard it so often that a part of me wonders if maybe its true? Can science prove that eating right before sleeping can trigger something that can cause dreams in general? This is my question for you all.
I believe what we have here is Non sequiter (which literally means “doesn't follow”) the statements are painted out like one thing led to another, but in reality there is no connection. Back to the first statement though, I've heard it so often that a part of me wonders if maybe its true? Can science prove that eating right before sleeping can trigger something that can cause dreams in general? This is my question for you all.