didn't mean to do that. typo sorry.
I honestly don't think this is possible. The only reason there's a split at the end of OoT is because Zelda created one when she sent Link back to his own time. There's only a linear span of time in the 1000 years that passed after Demise was defeated. Since there's no split, there's no way there can be two splits in the timeline. It's not a bad theory, but it's, sadly, misguided. (It's sad because it'd be the perfect way to accurately place the FSS.)
We have a discussion thread for this.
While I can't fully support JJ's argument (it's an issue that's been nagging be the whole time - what's really different between Link being sent back in time in OoT and Ghirahim going back in time?), SilentLink's poses some problems as well. The biggest one I think is that after this supposed split, Link and Zelda somehow managed to jump from the one timeline to the other. This has commonly (logically so) been believed to be impossible.
The other thing is that we know that Link travelling back and forth through the Gate of Time doesn't cause a split - why would Ghirahim's travel be any different?
How do we define "significantly different"? If Demise being sealed in the Master Sword instead of the sealing spike isn't significantly different, why is Ganondorf being sealed in the Twilight Realm instead of the Sacred Realm significantly different? How much does an event have to change in order to create a paradox or split?
Zelda's bracelet is an example of a constant, not a change. Impa always had the bracelet, even when you first met her at the beginning of the game. Zelda giving it to her only fulfilled what the timeline expected; it did not create a "small change" like the magic beans did. Another example is Zelda' crystal in the back room of the Sealed Temple. There are examples of the OoT bean mechanic as well though, such as the Tree of Life.
I'd also like to point out two other inconsistencies I found regarding the ending:
The first, just an odd small one, is that while Impa states that you returned to a time just after Hylia sealed Demise, Demise claims that he has been waiting to be revived for eons. Is this simply a case of the writers and/or translators/localizers messing up, or is there a logical explanation?
Second - and this may be important in this discussion if taken seriously - After Ghirahim goes to the past to revive Demise, old Impa is quite worried that Demise will return and destroy everything. Is she just too frightened to realize that everything would have been destroyed by now if he had succeeded? Surely if Ghirahim had changed the past, it would be reflected in the future: she would know that Demise was sealed in the Master Sword (like in the case with Groose and the Tree of Life described in above posts).